Re: [Gems-users] question about link utilization


Date: Thu, 31 Jan 2008 22:13:37 -0600
From: "Zhang Yu" <thuzhangyu@xxxxxxxxx>
Subject: Re: [Gems-users] question about link utilization
Thanks for the reply. I don't understand the meaning of the link utilization in the stats. Should it be the average utilization of both incoming link and outgoing link? For example, if switch0_link7 is connected to switch2_link 4, and both of the links are bidirectional(which means switch0_link7(or switch2_link4) is composed of 2 links, one is incoming and the other is outgoing). If this is the case, then the two links of the two switches should have the same utilization.

Thanks,
Yu

On Jan 31, 2008 10:01 PM, Niket Agarwal <niketa@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Two switches connected to each other will have two different "physical"
links in opposite directions.

But why should the link utilizations be the same ? The traffic that is
going in either direction has to be exactly the same for this.

 - Niket

Zhang Yu wrote:
> Hi,
>
> I'm wondering how the intra-chip switches connect to each other. As I
> understand that, when the 2 intra-chip switches are connect, they
> share wo links (different direction). In this case, the certain
> connected links for these two switches should have the same link
> utilization. However, when I check with the statistics, I could not
> find different links with same utilization. Do I misunderstand the
> connection between the switches? Can somebody explain this?
>
> Thanks,
> Yu
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